Dark

Check out our Level2View

CMPY
COMEPAY INC
stock OTC

Inactive

Jun 13, 2024

0.000100USD-90.000%(-0.000900)100

Pre-market

0.00USD-100.000%(0.00)0

After-hours

0.00USD0.000%(0.00)0

OverviewHistoricalExchangesShortsTrends

CMPY Reddit Mentions

Subreddits

Limit Labels Price

We have sentiment values and mention counts going back to 2017. The complete data set is available via the API.

Take me to the API

CMPY Specific Mentions

As of Aug 4, 2026 7:34:42 PM EDT (<1 min. ago)

Includes all comments and posts. Mentions per user per ticker capped at one per hour.

574 days ago • u/Newparadime • r/options • deep_in_the_money_puts • C

I believe my initial question was unclear
When I asked:
> How does a given market (not the traders using the market) profit from trades?
It should have read:
How does a given *exchange* (not the traders using the *exchange*) profit from trades?
As far as Market Makers (MMs), let me see if I've got this straight so far...
MMs are liquidity sources which profit by capitalizing on the bid / ask spread. Brokers profit either from commissions paid by retail investors, or marketing fees paid by MMs for preferential routing of trades.
Hypothetically...
Let's assume Market Maker 1 (MM-1) has an ask price of $1.00 for CMPY shares, and MM-2 has an ask price of $1.05. If I submit a limit order at $1.10/share, and we assume both MMs have plenty of shares to fulfill my order at the stated ask prices, you're asserting that I may pay more than the lowest ask of $1.00 with MM-1, if MM-2 has a more preferential routing contract with my retail brokerage.
Did I get that right?
If so, that makes sense. Thank you for taking the time to explain it.
So then, back to my original question...
How does an exchange (not a MM) profit from trades?

574 days ago • u/Newparadime • r/options • deep_in_the_money_puts • C

I believe my initial question was unclear
When I asked:
> How does a given market (not the traders using the market) profit from trades?
It should have read:
How does a given *exchange* (not the traders using the *exchange*) profit from trades?
As far as Market Makers (MMs), let me see if I've got this straight so far...
MMs are liquidity sources which profit by capitalizing on the bid / ask spread. Brokers profit either from commissions paid by retail investors, or marketing fees paid by MMs for preferential routing of trades.
Hypothetically...
Let's assume Market Maker 1 (MM-1) has an ask price of $1.00 for CMPY shares, and MM-2 has an ask price of $1.05. If I submit a limit order at $1.10/share, and we assume both MMs have plenty of shares to fulfill my order at the stated ask prices, you're asserting that I may pay more than the lowest ask of $1.00 with MM-1, if MM-2 has a more preferential routing contract with my retail brokerage.
Did I get that right?
If so, that makes sense. Thank you for taking the time to explain it.
So then, back to my original question...
How does an exchange (not a MM) profit from trades?

Share